Patient Safety Quiz Exploring Nursing Students’ Knowledge of Patient Safety Step 1 of 12 8% If you agree to take part in this study, please agree to the terms, enter the access code and then click the AGREE AND CONTINUE button to proceed to the quiz. We will assume that you have read the Participant Information Statement, that you consent to participate in the quiz, and that you agree to the researchers: Combining your anonymous responses to the quiz with responses of other participants for data analysis. Analysing and publishing the results of the combined quiz data in a way that does not identify you or any other participants. Using the combined study data in future research. Having read the information about the study above I agree to take part in this online quiz. (You must agree to continue with the quiz)Access code*Please enter the word 'yes', to agree with the conditions. All lowercase. Quiz instructions There are 10 demographic questions and 45 multiple choice questions. This quiz will take approximately 15-20 minutes and it will close after one hour. The quiz will not allow back-tracking or second attempts. When you have completed the quiz you will be provided with a certificate of achievement which includes your results. Age*Your age in yearsPlease enter a value between 0 and 110.Gender*MaleFemalePrefer Not to AnswerYour university of study*UTSCQUUniversity of the Sunshine CoastACUFederation University AustraliaLaTrobeDeakinUniversity of QueenslandFlindersUniversity of South AustraliaNotre Dame SydneyJames Cook UniversityMonashUniversity of OtagoQueensland University of TechnologyMurdoch UniversityOtago PolytechnicNorth TecSouthern Institute TechnologyOther UniversityPlease specify which university you are enrolled in*Program of study (e.g. BNursing)*Year of enrolment*201820172016201520142012201120102009200820072006200520042003200220012000Pre 2000Are you currently (or previously) employed in the healthcare industry?*YesNoPlease specify your role:*Country of birth*AfghanistanAlbaniaAlgeriaAmerican SamoaAndorraAngolaAntigua and BarbudaArgentinaArmeniaAustraliaAustriaAzerbaijanBahamasBahrainBangladeshBarbadosBelarusBelgiumBelizeBeninBermudaBhutanBoliviaBosnia and HerzegovinaBotswanaBrazilBruneiBulgariaBurkina FasoBurundiCambodiaCameroonCanadaCape VerdeCayman IslandsCentral African RepublicChadChileChinaColombiaComorosCongo, Democratic Republic of theCongo, Republic of theCosta RicaCôte d'IvoireCroatiaCubaCuraçaoCyprusCzech RepublicDenmarkDjiboutiDominicaDominican RepublicEast TimorEcuadorEgyptEl SalvadorEquatorial GuineaEritreaEstoniaEthiopiaFaroe IslandsFijiFinlandFranceFrench PolynesiaGabonGambiaGeorgiaGermanyGhanaGreeceGreenlandGrenadaGuamGuatemalaGuineaGuinea-BissauGuyanaHaitiHondurasHong KongHungaryIcelandIndiaIndonesiaIranIraqIrelandIsraelItalyJamaicaJapanJordanKazakhstanKenyaKiribatiNorth KoreaSouth KoreaKosovoKuwaitKyrgyzstanLaosLatviaLebanonLesothoLiberiaLibyaLiechtensteinLithuaniaLuxembourgMacedoniaMadagascarMalawiMalaysiaMaldivesMaliMaltaMarshall IslandsMauritaniaMauritiusMexicoMicronesiaMoldovaMonacoMongoliaMontenegroMoroccoMozambiqueMyanmarNamibiaNauruNepalNetherlandsNew ZealandNicaraguaNigerNigeriaNorthern Mariana IslandsNorwayOmanPakistanPalauPalestine, State ofPanamaPapua New GuineaParaguayPeruPhilippinesPolandPortugalPuerto RicoQatarRomaniaRussiaRwandaSaint Kitts and NevisSaint LuciaSaint Vincent and the GrenadinesSamoaSan MarinoSao Tome and PrincipeSaudi ArabiaSenegalSerbiaSeychellesSierra LeoneSingaporeSint MaartenSlovakiaSloveniaSolomon IslandsSomaliaSouth AfricaSpainSri LankaSudanSudan, SouthSurinameSwazilandSwedenSwitzerlandSyriaTaiwanTajikistanTanzaniaThailandTogoTongaTrinidad and TobagoTunisiaTurkeyTurkmenistanTuvaluUgandaUkraineUnited Arab EmiratesUnited KingdomUnited StatesUruguayUzbekistanVanuatuVatican CityVenezuelaVietnamVirgin Islands, BritishVirgin Islands, U.S.YemenZambiaZimbabwePlease specify how long you have lived in Australia:*Are you of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander descent?*YesNoPrimary language/s spoken at home:*CTRL or CMD click to choose multiple options EnglishFrenchSpanishGermanChinese (Mandarin)IndonesianAfrikannsAlbanianArabicArmenianBasqueBengaliBulgarianCatalanCambodianCroationCzechDanishDutchEstonianFijiFinnishGeorgianGreekGujaratiHebrewHindiHungarianIcelandicIrishItalianJapaneseJavaneseKoreanLatinLatvianLithuanianMacedonianMalayMalayalamMalteseMaoriMarathiMongolianNepaliNorwegianPersianPolishPortuguesePunjabiQuechuaRomanianRussianSamoanSerbianSlovakSlovenianSwahiliSwedishTamilTatarTeluguThaiTibetanTongaTurkishUkranianUrduUzbekVietnameseWelshXhosa Q1*Which of the following behaviours MOST reflect a person-centred approach by nurses?Respecting patients' individual rights and valuesDesigning quality care processes that align with healthcare policiesDeveloping meaningful friendships with patientsUpholding the preferences and needs of medical officersQ2*When practicing in a person-centred manner, nurses should:involve patients' families in all healthcare decisionsmake decisions for and on behalf of patientsview patients as experts and partners in healthcare decision makinginsist that patients make autonomous healthcare decisionsQ3*Which of the following statements is correct? Person-centred care increases:nursing burnouthealthcare costspatient satisfactionpatient length of stayQ4*Mrs Dobson is a 77 year old woman admitted to hospital for asthma. Why is educating Mrs Dobson about her medications an example of person-centred care?Patient education ensures that patients follow medication ordersPatient education helps patients make informed decisions about medicationsPatient education is a requirement of the National Open Disclosure policyPatient education is a priority for confused older peopleQ5*From the list below, identify TWO situations when nurses should advocate for patients? When the nurse believes that patient care is not safe When patients refuse to listen to advice about their treatment plan When the nurse believes that the patient’s decision about their treatment plan is incorrect When patients do not understand what they have been told about their prognosis Q6*What are the MOST common causes of adverse patient outcomes?Poor technical and procedural skillsStaff shortages and skill mixMedication calculation and administration errorsPoor communication and teamworkQ7*From the list below, identify THREE skills that are essential to therapeutic communication? Expressing empathy for the patient Ensuring all patients receive equal care Expressing sympathy for the patient Gaining the patient’s trust Establishing rapport with the patient Establishing rapport with staff Q8*Which of the following is an example of therapeutic communication by a nurse with a person who is anxious about having a minor surgical procedure?"Don't worry. It will be over before you know it.""I'm glad you trusted me enough to tell me how you are feeling""Oh dear, it's worrying isn't it. I'm glad it's you and not me.""I've had major surgery which was terrible. Fortunately you are only having a minor procedure."Q9*Which of the following non-verbal communication skills should be used when interviewing a patient?Maintaining indirect eye contactMaintaining an open posture with legs and arms crossedSitting squarely facing the patientProviding space by leaning backwards away from the patientQ10*One of the parents in the Emergency Department shouts at the triage nurse and demands to know why his daughter hasn’t been seen. What should the nurse say?"There are sicker children than your daughter so please calm down and wait your turn.""This is a Zero Tolerance workplace. I will call security if you shout at me.""I can see that you are worried about your daughter – let me check on the wait time for you.""I'm sorry, but we are very busy today. You will just have to wait like everyone else." Q11*Yasmina Shahid, 20 years old, came to Australia as an asylum seeker 18 months ago. She has been admitted to hospital with abdominal pain and is the only female in a four bed room. Yasmina explains that sharing a hospital room with males is against cultural beliefs and she asks whether she can change rooms. Which of the following statements is MOST correct?An equitable approach to health care means that Yasmina's request should not be given priority over the needs of other patients.Yasmina's cultural needs should be respected and supported.Quality healthcare takes priority over a person's cultural beliefs.Migrants need to adapt to Australian cultural norms so Yasmina's request is unreasonable.Q12*From the list below, identify THREE questions that the nurse should ask Yasmina when undertaking a cultural assessment? Why did you come to Australia? What does your illness mean to you? Have you ever been in an Australian hospital before? What did your doctor say is wrong with you? Do you have a particular religious faith? How are healthcare decisions made in your family? Q13*Which of the following comments suggests that a healthcare professional is culturally competent?"I believe that respecting people’s cultural beliefs does not mean I always have to agree with them.""I believe that migrants should adapt to the way we do things here and should not expect special treatment.""I am trying to memorise the cultural practices of the migrant groups in my area so that I don’t have to ask people about their individual cultural needs and values.""To me all patients are human beings and their culture, ethnicity or race do not matter. I provide equal care for everybody."Q14*Mr Daniel Lester is a 60-year-old Aboriginal man who was admitted with end-stage kidney disease. You are committed to providing culturally safe care to Mr Lester. Which of the following statements is FALSE?Cultural safety requires healthcare professionals to be self-aware and reflectiveCultural safety means respecting the cultural values of the patientCultural safety means being tolerant of differences between different ethnic groupsCultural safety is a concept developed in New Zealand by nurses working with Māori peopleQ15*Why might an Aboriginal Liaison Officer be asked to see Mr Lester?To provide emotional and cultural support to Mr Lester and his familyTo organise a discharge plan for Mr LesterTo provide culturally safe nursing care to Mr LesterTo ensure Mr Lester has a clear understanding of hospital rules about visiting hours. Q16*A nurse becomes concerned about a patient’s clinical deterioration and requests a clinical review using the acronym ISBAR to structure the telephone call. From the list below, identify FIVE correct components of ISBAR. Recommendation Response Indication Situation Allergies Identification Signs and symptoms Assessment Breathing Background Q17*Identify from the list below, THREE characteristics of effective healthcare teams. Top down communication Shared decision making in critical situations Effective and timely communication Hierarchical leadership Shared commitment to a common goal Mutual respect and trust Q18*During an emergency situation the following communication occurs. Doctor: Give 40 mg Furosemide IV push. Nurse: 40 mg Furosemide IV push? Doctor: That’s correct What is this communication technique called?Check-backClosed loop communicationTwo-challenge ruleCall outQ19*PACE is an acronym for graded assertiveness. Which of the following represent the FOUR elements of PACE? Probe – e.g. "Can you tell me why you want to do that?" Emergency action – e.g. "STOP what you are doing!" Plan – e.g. "I have a better plan for this situation …" Alert – e.g. "I think that will cause…" Concerns – "I feel a little concerned about what you are doing …" Action – e.g. "Let's take a different approach?" Explain – e.g. "Can you explain why you have made that decision?" Challenge – "Your approach will harm…" Q20*Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective nursing manager of an Emergency Department?The ability to make autonomous decisions when requiredThe ability to empower team members to question practice decisionsHigh level situational awareness in critical situationsThe determination to assume full responsibility during resuscitation situations Q21*Joel Andrews, 36 years old, was admitted to hospital with pneumonia. Joel's current observations are: Temperature 39°C Pulse rate 128 beats/min Respiratory rate 26 per minute Blood pressure 100/60mmHg Oxygen saturation 90% on a Hudson mask at 6 L/min Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to Joel's observations?He is hypertensive, hypoxic and dyspnoeicHe is febrile, bradycardic and hypoxicHe is febrile, tachycardic, and tachypnoeicHe is tachypnoeic, bradycardic and hypoxicQ22*Mr Lee is a 75 year old man who is day 2 following a bowel resection. In handover you hear that Mr Lee has hypervolaemia. What signs and symptoms are typical of hypervolaemia?Oliguria and elevated haematocrit levelsHypotension and tachycardiaPoor skin turgor and dry mucous membranesTachycardia and hypertensionQ23*Mr Lee's serum sodium is 128mmol/L and his serum potassium is 3.0mmol/L. Mr Lee is: Hypernatraemic and hypokalaemicHypernatraemic and hyperkalaemicHyponatraemic and hyperkalaemicHyponatraemic and hypokalaemicQ24*Aiden O'Brien is brought into the Emergency Department (ED) following a motor vehicle accident. Aiden's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 8. What does this indicate?Moderate head injurySevere head injuryMild head injuryNo head injuryQ25*You are asked to conduct a primary trauma survey. Which of the following statements BEST characterises a primary trauma survey?Rapidly assessing and stabilising any compromise to a patient's airway, breathing and circulationRapidly obtaining a set of vital signs on a patientObtaining an accurate history of the mechanism of a patient's injuryPerforming a head to toe physical examination to determine the extent of the trauma Q26*From the list below, identify the THREE MOST credible sources of evidence to inform nursing practice. Clinical expertise Newspaper articles Empirical studies Health information websites Patient preferences Health department policy directives Q27*The infection control Clinical Nurse Consultant on your ward explains that the rate of intravenous (IV) cannula site infections on your ward has increased significantly over the last 18 months. He asks for volunteers to work with him on a quality improvement project to review and update the relevant policy and procedure. What is an appropriate FIRST step in this process? search for recent systematic reviews on the topic of IV cannula managementinterview patients to collect qualitative data about their experiences of having an IVconduct a randomised control trial of IV dressing productsconduct a survey to elicit staff views about IV managementQ28*Your Nurse Unit Manager tells you that she has received the 2016-2017 patient satisfaction audit results and that your ward rated highly in every category except "Patient satisfaction with pain management". She asks you to design a study exploring orthopaedic patients' experiences of post-operative pain. Which of the following research methods is MOST appropriate for this study? interviews with staff to collect qualitative datainterviews with patients to collect qualitative dataa randomised control trialan online survey to collect quantitative dataQ29*Which of the following is considered to be the HIGHEST level of evidence?Quasi-experimental studiesSystematic reviewsCase studiesRandomised controlled trialsQ30*What does the term RELIABILITY mean when used to describe a research instrument?Whether the instrument can be easily understood by participantsWhether the instrument consistently measures what it is intended to measureWhether the content of the instrument is appropriateWhether the reporting of the results from the instrument is appropriate Q31*Which of the following is a CORRECT definition of an adverse event?An unintentional or unexpected event that could have resulted in injury or deathUnintended injury or illness resulting from healthcareA deliberate deviation from standard operating procedures, standards or rulesA situation in which there was significant potential for harm, but no incident occurredQ32*Open disclosure refers to the open discussion of an incident that resulted in an adverse event. Which TWO of the following are elements of the Australian Open Disclosure Framework? A factual explanation of what happened An explanation of potential legal actions Identification of who was responsible for the adverse event An expression of regret to the patient Q33*James Reason's "Swiss Cheese Model" is one model for conceptualising the human and systems factors that can lead to errors. Which of the following descriptors is an element of this model?Each hole in the cheese represents a defensive layer in the processWhen the holes in the cheese line up it is less likely that an error will be caughtThe more holes in the cheese the more likely it is that an error will be caughtEach hole in the cheese represents an opportunity for a process to failQ34*Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to have a negative impact on patient safety:The use of electronic medical recordsA culture of workplace bullyingEnvironmental noise and clutterStaff stress levelsQ35*Which of the following are elements of the ABCDEGH clinical assessment and documentation mnemonic?Airway, Breathing and DisabilityExposure, Holistic assessment and DisorientationElectrocardiograph, Fluids and GlucoseAirway, Circulation and Drugs Q36*What is the MAIN principle of antimicrobial stewardship? To prevent adverse consequences of antimicrobial useTo increase the prophylactic use of antimicrobial medicationsTo reduce inappropriate antimicrobial useTo promote the timely prescription of antimicrobial medications to at risk patientsQ37*When providing discharge education to a patient recently diagnosed with hepatitis C, the nurse knows that their teaching has been effective when the patient states:"I will use barrier protection during sex""I will be much more careful where I eat""I know I can no longer drink any alcohol""I will warn my friends to get vaccinated against this disease"Q38*While commencing a blood transfusion the nurse experiences a sharps injury. What should the nurse do?Squeeze the site of injury until blood flows freely to expel potential contaminantsSwab the site of injury with chlorhexidine solution to prevent infection from occurringSee a medical officer for a prescription of antibiotics to prevent colonisationSee staff health or the emergency department for assessment of the risk of transmission of blood-borne virusesQ39*A patient has a wound swab taken and Staphylococcus aureus is identified. Would the doctor prescribe antibiotics?Yes, because wounds colonised with Staphylococcus aureus are unlikely to healNo, not unless there are local signs of infection such as pain, pus and rednessYes, because Staphylococcus aureus is the most serious community-based infectionNo, because Staphylococcus aureus is not resistant to antibioticsQ40*Which microorganism is not destroyed by alcohol hand rub?Enterobacter speciesKlebsiella pneumoniaClostridium DifficileStaphylococcus aureus Q41*For nurses to administer medications a valid prescription is required. From the list below identify THREE components of a valid prescription. the generic name of the drug patient's allergy status the route of administration the signature of the patient the dose of the drug to be administered the trade name of the drug Q42*From the list below identify THREE medications classified as HIGH-RISK. Insulin preparations Potassium Chemotherapeutic agents Antipsychotic medications Analgesic medications Antihypertensive medications Q43*Which of the following is a correct definition of a medication side effect?A preventable medication incident that leads to, or has the potential to lead to, harm to the patient.A medication error that was detected and corrected before it reached the patient.An unintended effect of a drug that is usually predictable and may be harmless or potentially harmfulA response to a medication that is harmful and unintended and occurs at normal doses.Q44*When administering a Schedule 4D medication which of the following is MOST correct?Two staff members, one of whom must be a registered nurse, must check out and sign for the medication.Two nurses, one of whom may be a nursing student, must check out and witness administration of the medication.Two registered nurses must check out, administer and sign for the medication.Two staff members, one of whom must be a registered nurse, must witness administration of the medication.Q45*When preparing to administer a patient’s digoxin you note that the dose prescribed is 125mg and the dose in stock is 250 micrograms. Which THREE of the following actions are appropriate in this situation? Check the patient's digoxin levels before administering the medication Contact the prescribing doctor Document this as a 'near miss' in the incident management reporting system Administer ½ a digoxin tablet Refuse to administer the digoxin Check the patient's pulse before administering the medication Administer 2 digoxin tablets time_takenone_hour_step This iframe contains the logic required to handle Ajax powered Gravity Forms.